RSW'23 MCQ Quiz

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RSW'23 MCQ Quiz

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1. All of the following will negatively affect a myocardial study with 201Tl chloride except:

1 point

a. Wrong collimator

b. Arrhythmia

c. Incorrect COR

d. Increased patient to detector distance

Clear selection

2. If a bone scan has been ordered on a 5-year-old girl, and the physician prescribes 62% of the adult dose to be given, how many mCi should be administered?

1 point

a. 21.7 mCi

b. 12.4 mCi

c. 7.4 mCi

d. 3.1 mCi

Clear selection

3. What is the role of the stannous ion in the preparation of pharmaceuticals labelled with 99mTc?

1 point

a. to increase the valence state from +4 to +7

b. to reduce the amount of Al3+ present

c. to reduce the valence state of 99mTc

d. to reduce the radiation dose

Clear selection

4. The use of elliptical and/or body contour orbits in SPECT imaging should result in improved

1 point

a. Temporal resolution

b. Spatial resolution

c. Reconstruction times

d. Acquisition times

e. Patient comfort

Clear selection

5. What is being evaluated with chromatography testing of technetium radiopharmaceuticals

1 point

a. Aluminum Contamination

b. Molybdenum breakthrough

c. Radionuclidic purity

d. Radiochemical purity

e. Chemical purity

Clear selection

6. The use of elliptical and/or body contour orbits in SPECT imaging should result in improved:

1 point

a. Temporal resolution

b. Spatial resolution

c. Reconstruction times

d. Acquisition times

e. Patient comfort

Clear selection

7. Which of the following variables does not affect spatial resolution in nuclear medicine imaging systems?

1 point

a. Physical design of the collimator

b. Material of which the collimator is constructed

c. Energy of the gamma rays being counted

d. Computer matrix pixel size

e. Byte vs. word acquisition mode

Clear selection

8. Full width at half maximum (FWHM) is often used as a measure of:

1 point

a. Uniformity

b. Sensitivity

c. Intensity

d. Resolution

e. Dead time

Clear selection

9. Uncorrected flood field nonuniformities cause ____________ artifacts in tomographic reconstruction.

1 point

a. Irregular

b. Dropout

c. Circular

d. Undulating

e. Linear

Clear selection

10. A patient is to undergo a multiple-gated cardiac blood-pool study with the heart cycle divided in 20 frames. The patient is in normal sinus rhythm and has a heart rate of 68 bpm. The computer should lock in at what time per frame for this study?

1 point

a. 44 milliseconds

b. 56 milliseconds

c. 0.29 seconds

d. 1.5 seconds

e. 3.4 seconds

Clear selection

11. At what distance is the exposure rate (in mR/hr) indicated by a package's transport index measured?

1 point

a. At the surface

b. At 1 meter from the surface

c. At 3 meters from the surface

d. At 6 meters from the surface

e. Transport index doesn’t have anything to do with exposure, all packages, radioactive or not, have a T.I.

Clear selection

12. The dose rate during preparation of a radiopharmaceutical is 1.66 mrem/hr. With this rate reduced by 2 HVLs, how many hours would it take a worker to accumulate 10 mrems?

1 point

a. 3

b. 6

c. 12

d. 24

e. 48

Clear selection

13. A well counter is set to collect 10,000 counts or to stop after 5 minutes. The counter stops at 2 minutes. What is the count rate (in cpm)?

1 point

a. 2,000

b. 5,000

c. 10,000

d. 20,000

e. 200,000

Clear selection

14. Which of the following quality control tests should be performed on a dose calibrator after a power outage?

1 point

a. Nothing needs to be checked if QC was performed in the last 24 hours

b. Constancy

c. Linearity

d. Geometry

e. Sensitivity

Clear selection

15. The limit for Mo-99 contamination in a solution of Tc-99m is no more than

1 point

a. 1 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m

b. 0.15 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m

c. 5 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m

d. 0.15 uCi Mo-99 per ml Tc-99m solution

e. 5 uCi Mo-99 per ml Tc-99m solution

Clear selection

16. According to national standards, how often should the activity linearity of a dose calibrator be measured?

1 point

a. Each day of use

b. Weekly

c. Monthly

d. Quarterly

e. Annually

Clear selection

17. Which of the following situations would be considered an absolute contraindication for performing adenosine pharmacological stress testing?

1 point

a. Patient drank a couple cups of caffeinated coffee 2 hours prior

b. Patient ate a solid meal 2 hours prior

c. Patient had a colonoscopy 1 week prior

d. Patient had a known myocardial infarction 6 months previously

e. SPECT imaging is not available at this site

Clear selection

18. Which instrument is used for counting single pulses from the amplifier that fall within a selected voltage range?

1 point

a. Cutie pie survey meter

b. Well counter

c. Diverging collimator

d. Single channel analyzer

Clear selection

19. Which of the following collimators would provide the best resolution through magnification?

1 point

a. Parallel hole

b. Converging

c. Diverging

d. Slant hole

Clear selection

20. Uniformity of a gamma camera may be measured as either intrinsic or extrinsic

1 point

a. True

b. False

Clear selection

21. Which of the following is not a multi hole collimator?

1 point

a. Flat-field collimator

b. Focused (converging) collimator

c. Diverging collimator

d. Slant (30 degree) collimator

Clear selection

22. A circular cold spot artifact in a gamma camera image could NOT be the result of

1 point

a. a cracked NaI crystal

b. a metallic object on the patient

c. a defective photomultiplier tube

d. an incorrect photopeak energy setting of the PHA

Clear selection

23. Which of the following statements regarding radioiodine and the fetal thyroid are true?

1 point

a. Inorganic iodine crosses the placenta

b. Iodine can concentrate in fetal thyroid

c. The highest risk is in the second and third trimester

d. Fetal thyroid is not present before week 10 of pregnancy

e. All of the above

Clear selection

24. Advantages of PET over conventional gamma camera imaging include

1 point

a. a wider choice of molecules that may be labelled with positron emitters

b. better resolution

c. lower image noise

d. rapid decay of radiopharmaceutical

e. all of the above

Clear selection

25. PET imaging systems

1 point

a. need high-energy parallel hole collimators

b. cannot handle very high count rates

c. suffer from significant attenuation losses

d. detect annihilation photons in coincidence

Clear selection

26. All of the following statements are true about silicon Photodiode, except

1 point

a. PM tubes are replaced with light sensitive semiconductor detectors.

b. Semiconductor detector in photodiode acts as a scintillators.

c. Typical gain for conventional Silicon photodiode is lesser than PM tubes.

d. It requires very low noise electronics to read out signals

Clear selection

27. As the distance between parallel hole collimator and object being imaged reduces

1 point

a. Spatial resolution improves and count rate increases

b. Apparent size of object and count rate remains same

c. Spatial resolution and count rate remains same

d. Spatial resolution improves and count rate reduces

Clear selection

28. Which of the following radioisotope is not suitable for counting in liquid scintillation counters ?

1 point

a. H-3

b. C14

c. I-131

d. Cu-64

Clear selection

29. A superscan is a result of:

1 point

a. renal insufficiency

b. diffuse skeletal metastasis

c. chemotherapy response

d. Paget’s disease

Clear selection

30. Cerenkov counting system is used for

1 point

a. Detecting low energy beta emitters

b. Detecting high energy beta emitters

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Detection of gamma emitters

Clear selection

31. Dose calibrator is based on principles of

1 point

a. Ionization chamber

b. Geiger Muller counter

c. Proportional counter

d. Scintillator detectors

Clear selection

32. What is the maximum permissible amount of Mo-99 per mCi (per 37 MBq) of Tc-99m at the time of injection ?

1 point

a. 0.15 kBq per MBq

b. 1.5 microcuirie/mCi

c. 0.5 microcurie/mCi

d. 0.15 micreocurie/MBq

Clear selection

33. If a preparation of 99mTc mertiatide has 60 mCi of activity present at 8:30 a.m., how many mCi will be present at 9:00 a.m.? (l = 0.944)

1 point

a. 63.6

b. 56.6

c. 59.6

d. 53.6

Clear selection

34. What is the maximum amount of aluminum ions (Al3+ ) allowed in one milliliter of 99mTc eluate according to the USP?

1 point

a. none is allowed

b. 5 µg

c. 10 µg

d. 15 µg

Clear selection

35. If a kit contains 140 mCi of 99mTc in 23 ml at 9:00 a.m., how much volume must be withdrawn to obtain a dose of 5 mCi at 3:00 p.m.?

1 point

a. 0.8 ml

b. 1.6 ml

c. 2.4 ml

d. 0.6

Clear selection

36. Which of the following can be said regarding effective half-life?

1 point

a. it is always longer than the physical half-life

b. it always shorter than both the physical and the biologic half-life

c. it is always shorter than physical half-life, but longer than the biologic half-life

d. it is always longer than the biologic half-life, but shorter than the physical half-life

Clear selection

37. If the recommended volume for a MAG3 kit ranges from 4–10 ml, and the 99mTc eluate that will be used contains 820 mCi in 10 ml, and 41 mCi will be used, what is the minimum amount of diluent that should be added?

1 point

a. 0.5 ml

b. 1 ml

c. 3.5 ml

d. 9.5 ml

Clear selection

38. Convert 23 mCi to SI units.

1 point

a. 850 MBq

b. 850 kBq

c. 850 GBq

d. none of the above

Clear selection

39. A dose of 99mTc DMSA is prepared and calibrated to contain 5.0 mCi at 8:00 a.m. The patient arrives late at 10:00 a.m. Without using any tables of decay factors, determine what activity will remain in the dose at that time.

1 point

a. 3.40 mCi

b. 3.54 mCi

c. 3.62 mCi

d. 3.97 mCi

Clear selection

40. If a radiopharmaceutical is spilled on the floor, the first priority is to:

1 point

a. contact the Radiation Safety Officer

b. pour a chelating solution over the area of the spill

c. cover the area with absorbent paper and restrict access around it

d. call the housekeeping department to arrange for cleaning

Clear selection

41. A technologist discovers that a patient in the room next to a radioiodine therapy will receive 2.5 mrem/hr when lying in his bed which is against the shared wall. What should be done?

1 point

a. move the bed to the other side of the room

b. discharge the therapy patient

c. discharge the non therapy patient

d. calculate how long visitors to the non therapy patient can stay

e. calculate how long the patient may stay in bed each hour

Clear selection

42. In the event of a spill of 99mTc to clothes, one should immediately:

1 point

a. enter a shower fully clothed

b. remove and store the clothes until they decay to background

c. wash the clothes in hot water and then survey them to determine remaining activity

d. remove and destroy the clothing

Clear selection

43. Gaseous radiopharmaceuticals may only be used in rooms that:

1 point

a. have at least one window

b. contain an oxygen supply

c. are at a positive pressure compared to surrounding rooms

d. are at a negative pressure compared to surrounding rooms

Clear selection

44. Which of the following must be done during disposal of a carton in which a shipment of 131I was received?

1 point

a. RSO must be notified

b. contaminated carton must be stored till background levels

c. radioactive labels must be removed or obliterated

d. carton must be discarded with biohazardous waste

e. b and c

Clear selection

45. What length of time should a lactating female who undergoes 18FDG-PET scanning wait before resuming breast feeding?

1 point

a. 4 hours

b. 24 hours

c. one week

d. breastfeeding should be discontinued

Clear selection

46. What is the best choice for disposal of a vial containing 27 mCi of 99mTc in 2 ml of liquid?

1 point

a. transfer to an authorized recipient

b. incinerate

c. bury

d. store until decayed to background

e. release to the atmosphere through evaporation

Clear selection

47. If a technologist sits two feet away from a generator and the dose rate at his chair is 15 mrem/hr, what will the dose rate be if he moves his chair 4 feet from the generator?

1 point

a. 2.5 mrem/hr

b. 3.75 mrem/hr

c. 7.5 mrem/hr

d. 60 mrem/hr

Clear selection

48. A technologist is working in a hot lab where the exposure rate is 20 mR/hr. What sign should be on the door?

1 point

a. Caution: Radioactive Materials

b. Caution: Radiation Area

c. Caution: High Radiation Area

d. Grave Danger: Very High Radiation Area

e. none of the above

Clear selection

49. If the lead HVL for 99mTc is 2.6 mm, and a lead shield containing 99mTc eluate is 13 mm thick, what will the exposure rate be from the shielded vial if the unshielded vial had a rate of 100 mR/hr?

1 point

a. 1.6 mR/hr

b. 3.1 mR/hr

c. 6.3 mR/hr

d. 12.5 mR/hrn 1

Clear selection

50. Tools for measuring personal exposure to radiation include all of the following except:

1 point

a. thermoluminescent dosimeter

b. pocket ionization chamber

c. film badge

d. Geiger-Mueller Counter

Clear selection

51. Which of the following steps would not decrease a technologist’s chances of internal exposure to radiation?

1 point

a. wearing gloves during injection of radiopharmaceuticals

b. using tongs to transfer a vial from a lead shield to a dose calibrator

c. working under a fume hood when working with volatile liquids and radioactive gases

d. refraining from smoking and eating in the “hot lab”

Clear selection

52. A Type A package bears a Class II Yellow Radioactive label, has a transport index of 0.8, and contains 10 mCi of 111In oxine. What is the exposure rate at 3 feet from the package?

1 point

a. 0.4 mR/hr

b. 0.8 mR/hr

c. 1.0 mR/hr

d. 7 mR/hr

e. cannot be determined from the information given

Clear selection

53. What is the dose rate limit at the surface of a package bearing a Class I White label?

1 point

a. 0.5 mR/hr

b. 2 mR/hr

c. 50 mR/hr

d. 100 mR/hr

e. 200 mR/hr

Clear selection

54. A room containing a 57Co sheet source is posted with a sign reading “Caution-Radioactive Materials”. The exposure rate measured next to the source is 5.2 mR/hr. What should be done?

1 point

a. change the sign to one reading “Caution-Radiation Area”

b. store the source in a leaded container

c. monitor the length of time a technologist can work near the source

d. none of the above

Clear selection

55. If the exposure rate at 10 meters from a radioactive source is 15 mR/hr, what will the exposure rate be at 25 meters?

1 point

a. 2.4 mR/hr

b. 6 mR/hr

c. 3 mR/hr

d. 10 mR/hr

Clear selection

56. All of the following are critical factors in keeping radiation exposure to a minimum except:

1 point

a. time spent near the a radioactive source

b. geometry of the container holding the source of radiation

c. distance from the source of radiation

d. shielding of the radioactive source

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57. The philosophy of the ALARA program is to keep the radiation dose:

1 point

a. as low as recently authorized

b. as long as reasonably attained

c. as long as reasonably acceptable

d. as low as reasonably achievable

Clear selection

58. Which of the following units gives a measure of absorbed doses?

1 point

a. millicurie

b. becquerel

c. gray

d. all of the above

Clear selection

59. If the exposure rate at 4 meters from a radioactive source is 5 mR/hr, what will the exposure rate be at 3 meters?

1 point

a. 2.8 mR/hr

b. 6.5 mR/hr

c. 7.4 mR/hr

d. 8.9 mR/hr

Clear selection

60. What is the dose rate limit at the package surface for a shipment of radioactive material bearing a Yellow-III label?

1 point

a. 200 mR/hr

b. 50 mR/hr

c. 200 rads

d. 10 mrem

Clear selection

61. Which of the following is the most effective means of measuring low levels of removable radiation?

1 point

a. by performing an area survey

b. by performing a wipe test

c. with a pocket dosimeter

d. with a TLD

Clear selection

62. Which of the following should be used when administering an intravenous pharmaceutical to a patient?

1 point

a. lead apron

b. leaded eyeglasses

c. gloves

d. all of the above

e. a and b only

Clear selection

63. Which of the following isotopes would be effectively shielded by a plastic syringe?

1 point

a. 32P

b. 89Sr

c. 99mTc

d. 81mKr

e. a and b

Clear selection

64. What is the best way to decrease the radioactive dose to visitors if a patient is surveyed to emit 3 mR/hr at bedside?

1 point

a. have the patient wear lead aprons

b. keep the patient well hydrated and encourage frequent voiding

c. have the visitor sit or stand as far as possible from bedside

d. have the visitor wear lead shielding

Clear selection

65. If two photons strike a sodium iodide crystal at the same time, what will occur?

1 point

a. neither event will trigger production of light

b. the system will perceive only one event which will contain the summed energy of both photons

c. both will be correctly perceived

d. none of the above

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66. A typical energy spectrum of 99mTc from a patient contains a broad peak around 90–140 keV that is not present on the energy spectrum from a point source of the same isotope. This represents:

1 point

a. the iodine escape peak

b. the signal from 99mTc

c. lead X-ray peak

d. Compton scatter

Clear selection

67. Why might a technologist use an asymmetric window around a photopeak?

1 point

a. to include other emissions

b. to exclude the Compton edge

c. to exclude Compton scatter

d. none of the above

Clear selection

68. What energies are included if a 20% symmetric window is used for the 364 keV photopeak of 131I?

1 point

a. 191–437

b. 328–400

c. 337–391

d. 344–384

Clear selection

69. The _________method of SPECT acquisition requires slightly more time, but has less blurring than the________ method

1 point

a. step and shoot, continuous rotation

b. continuous rotation, step and shoot

Clear selection

70. Survey meters must be calibrated:

1 point

a. before first use

b. annually

c. following repair

d. all of the above

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